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timeskimo
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The title of my topic will draw much more attention than the topic deserves. I'm going to ask everyone here: is it proper to say that perhaps Islam in the middle east is somewhat analogous to Christianity in the middle ages up until Martin Luther? If so, how deep does this analogy run? And what are approximate literacy rates, might the problem be that similar, that lack of literacy or access or time for the Qu'ran results in a populace that doesn't know much besides what the Imams tell them?
-Timeskimo

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TomDavidson
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I've made the same comparison myself, although Islam actually DID go through a reformation once already -- and then UNreformed under the influence of the Saudis. They're certainly due for a new Luther.

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Junpei
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Interesting, I really didn't think about an Islam Reformation, although I have compared present-day Islam to Medieval Christianity.

This reformation that was "undone" -- what exactly happened? I would be interested to see how similar it was to the Protestant Reformation.

I also have a feeling that if some great leader could convince enough Muslims to branch-off into an "improved" sect of Islam, then the other Imams would reform or face a loss of power. Any problems with this logic?


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JonathanTheOmnipotent
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RedSkull also made tha analogy in his essay. His solution is to wipe them all out, though...
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msquared
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Junepi,

There was an Muslim religious leader by the name of Wahabi or some such. This is the form of Islam that is mainly in Saudi Arabia and is exported around the world. Do a search on google for it and see what you find out.

msquared


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