How about the right not to discriminated against based on race, religion, sex or sexual orientation?
Let's. What is your right not be discriminated against based on race, religion, sex or sexual orientation, and who does it protect you from? Generally speaking it applies directly to your interactions with the government, but otherwise it's been filtered through innumerable interpretations.
And why is that? Because these rights are often in direct conflict with each other. The baker case is a good to highlight that, religion versus sexual orientation, only
one of those is in the Constitution, yet somehow "right thinking" people believe the other should be given primacy.
There are other examples, you cite a few:
How long before someone says that they don't need to rent to a person, sell to a person, or allow in a public place a person because they are of the wrong race, religion, sex or sexual orientation and there are "separate but equal" (i.e. other) facilities they can use? That the hovel down the street is just as good as the nice apartment they are renting?
Of course discrimination in housing is long settled law. Your fears would require a bigger shift than any President can manage, even if he replaced several SC justices. And the backlash would be tremendous if they did.
It's not as clear cut though as it appears. You can't discriminate on race in housing, right? Can't refuse to rent an apartment based on race, right? Can't refuse to rent a hotel room, right? Of course not. But you can refuse to rent a room in your house based on race or another prohibited basis, why the difference? Because, that protection against discrimination can't overwhelm the Constitutional rights of the homeowner. Would that be decided the same way in the post Baker world? Maybe not.
While I respect a person's religious beliefs, just how different is not selling them a cake from not selling them food, or renting them a house, or allowing them in their schools?
Selling a cake? Not different at all. Preparing a wedding cake and delivering it to a wedding, very. I mean honestly, its a basic tenant of our law that you can not force someone to do work for you, even if they sign a contract you can not make them actually show up. You can sue for damages (but you have to mitigate), but personal services are inviolate. How is it then that you can force some to spend hours on custom building a product for you? I think you are under the mistaken impression that they would be making the cake anyway? Or that it's no big deal for them to make it? But neither of those has ever been the test. I can't force someone to dig my ditch if they decide not to, whether or not they take that Saturday off or build someone else's ditch. I certainly can't force someone to sign a contract with me. Except, now under this interpretation I can do so, and if they refuse to sign a contract and work for me, I not only don't have to mitigate (which is literally an economic test entitling me to the difference in costs), I can punish them by adding on non-contractual damages and even force them to close?