Intent to influence the election = in-kind campaign contribution.
There's literally no way to establish that where you have a celebrity that has a practice of paying for NDAs that predates his campaign. In fact, it's almost certain that the opposite conclusion would be held.
This can not be an "in-kind campaign contribution" if it's not a campaign contribution, ergo if Trump repaid this as an expense, or even as a general draw down versus a standard retainer, it pretty much moots the point. By the way, this is exactly why Rudi disclosed it, because it completely invalidates the premise.
To get to a contrary place is NOT an easy legal argument. I grant you it can be made, but then you're back to my prior questions above, about how the Congressional settlements are not "campaign contributions," how favorable insider media write ups are not illegal campaign contributions, heck how FB assisting the Obama campaign is not an illegal campaign contribution.
I get it, you guys are looking for a crime for Trump to be guilty of, no matter how implausible, but this isn't likely to be it.
Loan from Michael Cohen to the campaign required filings (he was paid back in installments over time).
Legal services and expenses are routinely billed after the expense is incurred, this is not a "loan." By this interpretation every campaign in history has violated the campaign finance laws by failing to report the services they received and later paid for as "campaign contributions."
So no, this doesn't clear the air.
No it doesn't clear the air. This raises the likliehood that Trump lied, but that's not illegal, and even there its entirely possible he wasn't aware of the details if this was a common enough occurrence. I mean if Cohen had settlement authority of up to $250k, for example, which is not unheard of, then its entirely possible this is fully legal and no one lied about it.
What this does is virtually destroy a criminal charge of a campaign finance violation.