There's not one bit of evidence proferred in the Ukranianian mess that - as of yet - actually ties Trump to a crime, or even bribery.
Well what we *do* have is Trump making requests of a foreign leader, in a case that is possibly related to an upcoming election. I'd like to ask you, as someone knowledgeable in law, what it would take to legally connect the dots between this and coming to the conclusion 'beyond a reasonable doubt' that Trump's requests were purposefully (and solely) designed to disrupt Biden's 2020 election chances?
That's a hard one Fen, as it appears to me to be counter factual. The strongest evidence of any connection is actually Trump's phone call transcript. In that he expressly mentions, the 2016 interference, and endemic corruption, with the specific example of Biden's bragging about getting the prosecutor fired for investigating his son.
Tying that into the 2020 election? That's almost completely spin from the WB complaint. In fact, that was the primary source of the 2020 claim, it's no where in the call and no where in the record. As far as I can tell there's no attribution - at all - to the President.
As I noted some time back, it's also a very shaky theory underlying it as a crime. It was stated as such in the WB complaint, and that was clearly building on the Special Counsel's report. It has NEVER been found that receiving true information from a foreign person about a crime is a "thing of value" under the law. Ergo, the oft ignored fact that the DOJ already considered that point about the phone call and said it wasn't criminal.
So how do you get there? Don't see any way that asking for information about the 2016 election gets you there. Nor would it be interference if the investigation turns up actual evidence of crimes by Joe Biden, it's just not supportable under our law (and yes, I am aware that there is a hold out DNC FEC Commissioner who took it upon herself to issue an "opinion" to support the idea. That's neither official, nor was it legitimate or appropriate for her to do).
So the only way to get there, is to assert it as a bribery claim. You'd have to connect Trump - personally - to that action. If you were good, you could build a claim around Rudy, and a "conspiracy" but you have too many points that fail to get there based on what we've seen to date. Unless I missed it, you didn't even have a witness that could clearly tie Rudy to the specific request that Biden appear in the announcement (that never even happened). You'd need that with certainty, and then some way to prove that was directed by Trump or part of the furtherance of a conspiracy to do something illegal (which unfortunately HAS to be bribery because there isn't anything illegal about investigating Biden, or uncovering evidence of his crimes, or even disclosing that in a way that hurts his electoral chances).
And then you're back to the problem that there was no bribe, nothing of value was exchanged, and the only evidence you have that this wasn't always the way it would play out is that the preemptive WB account
could have prompted the aide being released. Of course, you don't have testimony on the aide being released, because none of the witnesses were actually in the know about the aide (as each clearly testified, though that didn't stop them from making up reasons for it). Nor do you have testimony about the veracity of the underlying potential Biden misdeeds, because the House DNC managers obstructed justice by preventing that evidence from being gathered.
So, again, not clear how you would get there.
I personally do see the argument being made: an upcoming election candidate, a front-runner as well, is being subjected to a lateral attack by someone who might end up being his opponent in an election.
You mean like say Bloomberg news announcing a policy that they won't investigate or negatively report on the candidates from one party, but will continue to attack the other side? Interesting that no one's up in arms about what looks very much like it should be a FEC vioation, yet it was the crime of the century that Trump's campaign ran a fund raiser for a charity and he might get credit.
Or how about, politically motivated leakers being granted WB anonimity to attack the President in large part to interfere in the process that could result in him being reelected?
Of if we want to be direct, phony Russian investigations used to spy on a campaign? Or meetings with Ukrainian prosecutors during the 2016 election run up to dig up dirt on Paul Manafort in large part because of his connection to Trump? I mean if digging up true info there was okay (even if there are questions about whether it was faked), why would digging up true info on Biden not be?
It's not unreasonable to want to verify whether this whole thing isn't a preemptive political attack abusing Trump's power.
Trump's going to make political attacks on all these people. That's actually legitimate. Zero question that -even though "he's the President" - he's allowed to make political attacks.
The "abuse" has got to be about the withholding of aid, or there is nothing here. The witnesses were suprising in that they describe Trump as not wanting to deal with the Urkraine, in believing that the new administration was bringing in bad actors from the prior administration. And it was clear from the context that he viewed those bad actors as having been involved in the 2016 election interference (and one day after Meuller's testimony its clear why he'd see that as a concern). That really does undercut the case that "all" Trump wanted was some kind of political payola. Trump has been crystal clear that he believes we shouldn't be paying out foreign aid, that Europe should be doing more and in delaying foreign aide around to many countries every year.
All of which, makes this look like it was routine if you could find the neutral observer.
Go back and re look at the transcript. You can literally see him talk through the exact and only things that have been attributed to him (none of which were illegal or even improper). You can't find any where that he implied there was a trade being offered, let alone an improper one.
He talks about the prior ambassador being bad, and Zelenskyy confirms it and expands on it. Why it's not crystal clear he seems to indicate that she was connected to the prior corrupt President of the Ukraine and not a fan of Zelenskyy (even though the state department employees otherwise were gungho on him). It's only not clear because he may have been talking about Obama for part of it (though not in any corrupt way).
But it's also possible that it really is a legitimate investigation into the 2016 election practices and is a form of draining the swamp. For it to be a bribe I presume one would have to show that it wasn't really about 2016 but was about 2020; knocking Biden out of the race. For it to be not-a-bribe I assume there would have to be some kind of evidence that Trump was legitimately concerned about the events around 2016.
Like say direct evidence that Trump expressly mentioned the 2016 election on the day after Meuller testified, in a call to Zelenskyy? Or the fact that he's given out several hundred tweets about investigating the "witchhunt" or the 2016 election interference?
If only there were hundreds of tweets, statements and a transcript of that call......
Of course there's a third option, which is that Trump legitimately - and stupidly - thought there was malfeasance around 2016, and it just wrong about that, but wanted the investigation because he really thought there was.
Don't know how to take that, but it's not a third option it's just a variation on the second.
That would be a wasted use of his resources, but I assume not outright an abuse. Just a fruitless exercise and waste of his time if that's the case.
Investigating what doesn't turn out to be a crime is not a crime, so long as you have a reasonable predicate. I think the one thing that is clear, is that something really off occurred around the 2016 election.
So as a lawyer how do you get from "it could have been a bribe" to "it was almost certainly a bribe" in a court of law? How do those dots get connected to separate out the 'concerns about 2016 hjinx' from the 'trying to disrupt 2020'?
I don't answer questions as a "lawyer" online. Happy to give my thoughts generally.
I think most people make the case by demonstrating the exchange (which didn't happen) and evidence of an agreement stipulating that for one event the other had to occur. The second part of that seems to fail as well, as there isn't even clear evidence that Rudy had an agreement like that on the table, and nothing as of yet establishing that he had a mandate from the President to seek one.
Literally the "star" witness seems to have been Sondland, and he testified that he "presumed" there was a quid pro quo, but that no one on earth told him there was, and that Trump directly told him there wasn't.